Forgot Windows XP Password

Windows Password

Hi all! I know this post is not relevant to CCNA but this is a common problem that came across so many times. Yes it is the forgot windows password problem. I have seen on many websites people are asking for it but most of the websites ....

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CCNA 3 Exploration - Chapter 1

E-Switching Chapter 1 - CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and Wireless (Version 4.0)

Provided by : Malcolm

1 Link aggregation should be implemented at which layer of the hierarchical network?

Core only

Distribution and core

Access and distribution

Access, distribution, and core

2 Which two features are supported at all three levels of the Cisco three-layer hierarchical model? (Choose two.)

Power over Ethernet

Load balancing across redundant trunk links

Redundant components

Quality of Service

Link aggregation

3 Which hierarchical design model layer controls the flow of network traffic using policies and delineates broadcast domains by performing routing functions between virtual LANs (VLANs)?

Application

Access

Distribution

Network

Core

4 Which layer of the hierarchical design model provides a means of connecting devices to the network and controlling which devices are allowed to communicate on the network?

Application

Access

Distribution

Network

Core

5 A technician is attempting to explain Cisco StackWise technology to a client that is setting up three stackable switches.Which explanation accurately describes StackWise technology?

StackWise technology allows up to eight ports to be bound together to increase available bandwidth.

StackWise technology allows the switch to deliver power to end devices by using existing Ethernet cabling.

StackWise technology allows the switch capabilities and ports to be expanded by the addition of line cards.

StackWise technology allows up to nine switches to be interconnected via the use of a fully redundant backplane.

6 Configuring communication between devices on different VLANs requires the use of which layer of the OSI model?

Layer 1

Layer 3

Layer 4

Layer 5

7 Which three features are commonly supported at the distribution layer of the Cisco hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)

Security policies

Power over Ethernet

Switch port security

Quality of service

Layer 3 functionality

End user access to network

8

Refer to the exhibit. Beginning with HR servers and workstations, a network engineer is designing a new security structure for the network. Which set of policies adheres to the hierarchical network model design principles?

Implement Layer 3 switching on S1 to reduce the packet processing load on D1 and D2. Install all security processing on S1 to reduce network traffic load.

Configure port security options on S1. Use Layer 3 access control features on D1 and D2 to limit access to the HR servers to just the HR subnet.

Move all HR assets out of the data center and connect them to S1. Use Layer 3 security functions on S1 to deny all traffic into and out of S1.

Perform all port access and Layer 3 security functions on C1.

9 A network technician is asked to examine an existing switched network. Following this examination, the technician makes recommendations for adding new switches where needed and replacing existing equipment that hampers performance. The technician is given a budget and asked to proceed. Which two pieces of information would be helpful in determining necessary port density for new switches? (Choose two.)

Forwarding rate

Traffic flow analysis

Expected future growth

Number of required core connections

Number of hubs that are needed in the access layer to increase performance

10 Which layer of the hierarchical network design model is referred to as the high-speed backbone of the internetwork? Where high availability and redundancy are critical?

Access layer

Core layer

Data-link layer

Distribution layer

Network layer

Physical layer

11 What statement best describes a modular switch?

A slim-line chassis

Allows interconnection of switches on redundant backplane

Defined physical characteristics

Flexible characteristics

12 Which hierarchical design characteristic would be recommended at both the core and distribution layers to protect the network in the case of a route failure?

PoE

Redundancy

Aggregation

Access lists

13 Which two characteristics are associated with enterprise level switches? (Choose two.)

Low port density

High forwarding rate

High latency level

Support link aggregation

Predefined number of ports

14 Which feature supports higher throughput in switched networks by combining multiple switch ports?

Convergence

Redundant links

Link aggregation

Network diameter

15 At which hierarchical layer are switches normally not required to process all ports at wire speed?

Core layer

Distribution layer

Access layer

Entry layer

16 For organizations that are implementing a voice over IP solution, what functionality should be enabled at all three layers of the hierarchical network?

Power over Ethernet

Quality of service

Switch port security

Inter-VLAN routing

17 Which layer of the OSI model does an access layer LAN switch use to make a forwarding decision?

Layer 1

Layer 2

Layer 3

Layer 4

18 What is the likely impact of moving a conventional company architecture to a completely converged network?

Local analog phone service can be completely outsourced to cost-effective providers.

The Ethernet VLAN structure is less complex.

A shared infrastructure is created resulting in a single network to manage.

QoS issues are greatly reduced.

There is less bandwidth competition between voice and video streams.

19 A network administrator is selecting a switch that will operate at the network core. Which three features should the switch support for optimum network performance and reliability? (Choose three.)

Port security

Security policies

10 Gigabit Ethernet

Quality of service (QoS)

Hot-swappable hardware

Power over Ethernet (PoE)

20

Refer to the exhibit. What characteristic of hierarchical network designs is exhibited by having SW3 connected to both SW1 and Sw2?

Scalability

Security

Redundancy

Maintainability

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SEASONS GREETINGS

CCNA 2 - Exploration

Hi guys, thanks for visitng my blog, i have already uploaded the final exam of CCNA 2 version 4, soon you guys will see final exam "PAPER 2". I am going to upload the paper 2 as soon as i will get time.

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"MERRY CHRISTMAS..............., HAPPY NEW YEAR.................., HAPPY CHANUKA............... and SEASONS GREETINGS............... to all of you.........."

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CCNA 2 Exploration - Final Exam (I)

CCNA 2 - FINAL EXAM (i)

• Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three)

>>> The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one
>>> The router maintains the same source and destination IP
>>> The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface

• Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two)

>>> Packet switching
>>> Path selection

• Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?

>>> Packets routed to the R2 ethernet interface require two routing table lookups

• Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the graphic for Router R2 Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination address of 10141?

>>> 0000/0 via 19216801

• Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two)

>>> 10000/8
>>> 19216820/24

• Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 1721600 network Assuming Router2 is configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 1721600? (Choose two)

>>> ip route 1721600 25525500 S0/0
>>> ip route 1721600 25525500 19216802

• What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two)

>>> Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland
>>> Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery

• Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 1721610/24 network take to get to the 10000/24 network?

>>> It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC

• Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two)

>>> They are aware of the complete network topology
>>> They offer rapid convergence times in large networks

• Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192?

>>> It is the metric, which is cost

• A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach network 1921681680?

>>> S 1921681680/24 [1/0] via 1921682001

• When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a router use to determine which routes to add to the routing table?

>>> The router first selects routes with the lowest administrative distance. The resulting routes are then prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to the routing table

• What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?

>>> It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates

• Which three statements are true of holddown timers? (Choose three)

>>> Prevent update messages from reinstating a route that may have gone bad
>>> A low routers to still forward packets to destination networks that are in holddown
>>> Permit lower metric updates received from any neighboring router to reinstate the route to a possibly down network

• Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol If network 10000 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to Router2?

>>> Split horizon

• Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol Network 10000 goes down Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event?

>>> Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10000

• What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header?

>>> Limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded

• A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?

>>> B(config)# router rip
>>> B(config>>>router)# passive>>>interface S0/0

• Which statement is true regarding routing metrics?

>>> Routers compare metrics to determine the best route

• Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three)

>>> The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route
>>> The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120
>>> The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C

• Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes a ached to router R1?

>>> 19818480/21

• The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology?

>>> The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3

• Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an ultimate route?

>>> 2

• The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed However, when the workstation on network 1722950/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.19.85 it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result?

>>> The ip classless command is not enabled on the Suffolk router

• Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three)

>>> As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table
>>> If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology
>>> The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor

• Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three)

>>> Paris(config)# router eigrp 100
>>> Paris(config>>>router)# network 19216870
>>> Paris(config>>>router)# network 19216880

• Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true based on the output shown? (Choose two)

>>> Neighbors 192168109 and 192168105 have auto summary disabled

>>> Router 3 is load balancing traffic to the 1721630 network across its serial Interfaces

• Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 1921681031 with a default gateway of 1921681017 The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?

>>> 1921681031 is the broadcast address for this subnet

• Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three)

>>> The AD of EIGRP routes has been manual y changed to a value other than the default value
>>> Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process
>>> No default route has been configured

• Which of the following could describe the devices labeled "?" in the graphic? (Choose three)

>>> DCE
>>> CSU/DSU
>>> Modem

• Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?

>>> Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM

• Refer to the exhibit. What are the effects of the exhibited commands on the router?

>>> Only the enable password is encrypted

• When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from Router C, which devices will be displayed in the output?

>>> B, D

• Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the routers:

>>> R1(config)# ip route 10110 2552552550 19216802
>>> R2(config)# ip route 10120 2552552550 19216801

• When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing table does not display the static route to the 10110 network Al R1 and R2 interfaces are correctly addressed per the graphic. What is a logical next step that the engineer could take in order to make the static route display in the routing table in R1?

>>> Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces

• Which two router component and operation pairs are correctly described? (Choose two)

>>> NVRAM - stores the configuration file
>>> POST - runs diagnostics on hardware modules

• What are three features of CDP? (Choose three)

>>> Tests Layer 2 connectivity
>>> Enabled by default on each interface
>>> Provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled

• Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network a ached to R3 R1 learned Path A to network 10200/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10200/16 from EIGRP Which route will R1 install in its routing table?

>>> The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10200/16

• What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 1721600/19 in area 0?

>>> R1(config>>>router)# network 1721600 0031255 area 0

• Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1?

>>> DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 19216810

• What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?

>>> Used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests

• Refer to the exhibit Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10000/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?

>>> The JAX router needs the network 19216830 000255 area 0 command

• What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two)

>>> The routers must agree on the network type
>>> The routers must use the same dead interval

• Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three)

>>> OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links
>>> EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing
>>> RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15

• A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command wil save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area?

>>> Router_A(config>>>router)# default>>>informa on originate

• Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three)

>>> Network address
>>> Wildcard mask
>>> Area ID

• Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three)

>>> OSPF interval timers mismatch
>>> Interface network type mismatch
>>> Inconsistent authentication configuration

• Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 1721610/16 network to the 1921682000/24 network?

>>> The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces

• What is the first step OSPF and IS>>>IS routers take in building a shortest path first database?

>>> Learn about directly connected networks

• Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link Pings are failing between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the problem?

>>> Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 19216801/30

• Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1 What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192168026?

>>> The packet will be dropped

• The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 1721610 2552552550 1721622 command How will this route appear in the routing table?

>>> S 1721610 [1/0] via 1721622

• Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two)

>>> Router2 is missing a route to the 1721600 network
>>> Router3 is missing a route to the 10000 network

• Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with default routing protocol settings and have interfaces configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traffic between the Router1 LAN and Router5 LAN be routed through the network?

>>> EIGRP traffic will use the path Router1, Router3, Router4, Router5 because it has the best metric

• Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?

>>> Routes to networks 19216810/24, 19216820/24, and 19216830/24 will be in the routing table

• Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?

>>> 1721600/13

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CCNA 2 -Exploration Final Exam News

Dear readers,

Just hold your breath for couple of hours because CCNA 2 Exploration Final Exam Answers are going to upload here soon. Stick around this blog and click on adsense. Just a drive away, do not take it as a joke.

I am off for now and be right back with final exam answers.

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CCNA 2 V.4 Exploration - Chapter 11

Chapter 11 - Module Answers

• Refer to the exhibit. What does the "O*E2" from the "O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.1.1, 00:05:34, Serial0/0" line represent?

An external OSPF route that will not increment in cost

• Refer to the exhibit. What is the cost of the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?

1786

• What three parameters must be indentical between OSPF routers in order to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)

Area id
Hello interval
Network type

• What does OSPF use to reduce the number of exchanges of routing information in networks where large numbers of neighbors are present? (Choose two.)

Designated router
Backup designated router

• What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination network?

Bandwidth

• A fully converged five router OSPF network has been running successfully for several weeks. All configurations have been saved and no static routes are used. If one router looses power and reboots, what information will be in its routing table after the configuration file is loaded but before OSPF has converged?

Routes for connected networks that are operational will be in the routing table.

• Refer to the exhibit. Router A is correctly configured for OSPF. Which OSPF configuration statement or set of statements was entered for router B to generate the exhibited routing table?

B(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

• Refer to the exhibit. Which network command or set of sommands will cause OSPF to be enabled to send and receive packets for any R1 interface in the exhibited subnets?

R1(config-router)# network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0

• Refer to the exhibit. What does the "2" stand for in the router ospf 2 statements?

The number 2 identifies this particular instance of OSPF on this router.

• Refer to the exhibit. All routers have been configured with the interface priorities that are shown. All routers were restarted simultaneously. The results of the DR/BDR election are shown. What can be concluded about this network?

The highest router ID was most likely determined via an OSPF router-id statement or statements.

• Refer to the exhibit. What configuration statements would give the results that are shown in the output of the show ip protocols command

B(config)# router ospf 1
B(config-router)# router-id 192.168.1.5

• Refer to the exhibit. How many OSPF adjacencies must be formed to build the complete topology if a DR or BDR were not elected in this OSPF network?

6

• What is the default administrative distance for OSPF?

110

• Refer to the exhibit. Routers A, B, C, and D are all running OSPF with default router IDs and OSPF interface priorities. Loopback interfaces are not configured and all interfaces are operational. Router D is the DR and router C is the BDR. What happens immediately after the following commands are entered on router A?

A(config)# interface fa0/0
A(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255
D will remain the DR. C will remain the BDR.

• Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running OSPF. What cost would JAX put in its routing table for the 10.0.0.0/24 network?

1787

• What range of networks will be advertised in the OSPF updates by the command Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 100?

192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.15.0/24

• Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to set the router ID of Router1 to 192.168.100.1. What steps must the administrator take to accomplish this?

Nothing, the router-id of Router1 is already 192.168.100.1

• Refer to the exhibit. When OSPF is operational in the exhibited network, what neighbor relationship is developed between Router1 and Router2?

A FULL adjacency is formed.

• Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routers have default interface OSPF priorities and no configured loopback interfaces, what two roles will router B play on each network segment? (Choose two.)

DR for network 192.168.1.200
BDR for network 192.168.1.204

• Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running OSPF. The show ip ospf neighbor command reveals no neighbors. What is a possible cause?

OSPF hello or dead timers do not match.

• Refer to the exhibit. Which command sequence on RouterB will redistribute a gateway of last resort to the other routers in OSPF area 0?

RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default-information originate

• Refer to the exhibit. RouterA, RouterB, and RouterC in the diagram are running OSPF on their Ethernet interfaces. Router D was just added to the network. Routers are configured with the loopback interfaces (Lo 0) that are shown in the exhibit. What happens to the OSPF DR/BDR after RouterD is added to the network?

There is no change in the DR or BDR until either current DR or BDR goes down.

• Which two statements describe the use of OSPF DR/BDR elections? (Choose two.)

Elections are required in broadcast multiaccess networks.
Elections are required in non-broadcast multiaccess networks.

• Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are using default OSPF configuration settings to advertise all attached networks. If all of the routers start at the same time, what will be the result of the DR and BDR elections for this single area OSPF network? (Choose three.)

Router A will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
HQ will be BDR for 10.4.0.0/16.
Remote will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.

• Refer to the exhibit. What must be received between neighbors to prevent the dead time that is shown in the exhibit from reaching zero?

Hello packets



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CCNA 2 V.4 Exploration - Chapter 10

Chapter 10 - Module Answers

• Refer to the exhibit. When Router D is configured to use a link-state routing protocol and is added to the network, what is the first thing that it does to begin learning the network topology?

It learns about its directly connected networks when its interfaces reach the up state.

• What two events will cause a link state router to send LSPs to all neighbors? (Choose two.)

Whenever the network topology changes

Upon initial startup of router or routing protocol

• What is the final step in the link state routing process?

SPF computes best path to each destination network

• What two statements correctly describe the link state routing process? (Choose two.)

Each router in the area floods LSPs to all neighbors

All routers in the area have identical link state databases

• Refer to the exhibit. What kind of information would be seen in an LSP sent from router JAX to router ATL?

Cost of the link

• What feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and memory requirements?

Splitting routing topologies into smaller areas

• To achieve network convergence, what three steps does each link state router take? (Choose three.)

Build a Link State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link

Flood the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database

Construct a complete map of the topology and compute the best path to each destination network

• What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?

Updates triggered by network changes

• Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?

Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.

• What are some of the advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)

Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.

After the inital LSA flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate

Changes in a topology.

• Which algorithm is run by link-state routing protocols to calculate the shortest path to destination networks?

Dijkstra

• Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the path traffic would take from the 10.0.0.0/24 network to the 192.168.1.0/24 network if a link-state routing protocol was in use?

BOS -> ORL -> JAX -> ATL because this path is the lowest cost

• Which database or table must be identical on all link-state routers within an area in order to construct an accurate SPF tree?

Link-state database

• Which two routing protocols use Dijkstra’s shortest path first algorithm? (Choose two.)

IS-IS

OSPF

• When are link-state packets sent to neighbors?

When a link goes up or down

• Refer to the exhibit. What does JAX do with link-state packets from ORL?

Sends out the individual link-state packets out the interface connected to BOS

• A new network administrator is given the task of selecting an appropriate dynamic routing protocol for a software development company. The company has over 100 routers, uses CIDR and VLSM, requires fast convergence, and uses both Cisco and non-Cisco equipment. Which routing protocol is appropriate for this company?

OSPF

• What action does a link-state router take immediately upon receipt of an LSP from a neighboring router?

Floods the LSP to neighbors

• Refer to the exhibit. If all routers and interfaces are configured to use a link-state routing protocol, from which routers will router D receive hello packets?

B and C


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CCNA 2 V.4 Exploration - Chapter 9

Chapter 9 - Module Answers

Hi all!

I have uploaded the chapter 9 answers in downloaded version because it contains lots of pictures. Don't worry you can download the file in PDF, HTML or DOc format.

click on the link to download the file : CCNA 2 Exploration - Chapter 9 Answers

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CCNA 2 V.4 Exploration - Chapter 8

Chapter 8 - Module Answers

Hi all!

I have uploaded the chapter 8 answers in downloaded version because it contains lots of pictures. Don't worry you can download the file in PDF, HTML or DOc format.

click on the link to download the file : CCNA 2 Exploration - Chapter 8 Answers

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CCNA 2 V.4 Exploration - Chapter 7

Chapter 7 - Module Answers

1. A network administrator has been told that the company IP address infrastructure must adhere to RFC 1918. What three IP address ranges from RFC 1918 could the administrator use on the network? (Choose three.)

10.0.0.0/8

172.16.0.0/12

192.168.0.0/16

2. Refer to the exhibit. Routers East and West are configured using RIPv1. Both routers are sending updates about their directly connected routes. The East router can ping the West router serial interface and West can ping the serial interface of East. However, neither router has dynamically learned routes from the other. What is most likely the problem?

VLSM is not supported by RIPv1.

3. Refer to the exhibit. What effect will the commands that are shown have on RIP updates for Router1?

Only version 2 updates are sent to 224.0.0.9.

4. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output shown in the exhibit?

The no auto-summary has not been configured on this router.

5. What are two reasons to implement RIP version 2 rather than RIP version 1? (Choose two.)

RIP version 2 supports VLSM.

RIP version 2 supports routing update authentication.

6. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv1 is configured as the routing protocol for the network that is shown. The following commands are used on each router:

router rip

network 10.0.0.0

network 172.16.0.0

When this configuration is complete, users on the LAN of each router are unable to access the remote LANs. Why?

RIPv1 is unable to route to discontiguous subnets of a major network.

7. A network administrator installed four new routers that are running RIPv2. Router1 is a boundary router in the RIPv2 network and has a default route configured. Once the network has converged, the network administrator enters Router1(config-router)# default-information originate on Router1. How will this affect the network?

propagates the default route to all routers in the network

8. Refer to the exhibit. A technician needs to add a new loopback interface to test routing functionality and network design. The technician enters the following set of commands on the router:

Sanford(config)# interface loopback1

Sanford(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.62 255.255.255.252

The network address for Loopback1 overlaps with an already configured interface address.

9. What is the maximum network diameter permitted by the default metric of RIPv2?

15 hops

10. What are two functions of the network command used when configuring routing protocols? (Choose two.)

identifies which networks will be included in the routing updates

determines which interfaces can send and receive routing updates

11. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. What changes will occur in the routing table of router B if a loopback interface with an address of 10.16.1.129/27 is configured on router B?

A connected route to the 10.16.1.128/27 network is added.

12. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP version 2, why is there no route for the 192.168.1.32/27 network?

Rip version 2 will auto summarize routes by default.

13. RIPv2 is the configured routing protocol on the routers in a network. The command Router(config-router)# no version 2 is entered on the routers. What effect does entering this command have on routing updates?

Version 1 and 2 updates will be received and the version 2 updates will not be sent.

14. How are RIP v1 and RIP v2 similar to one another? (Choose three.)

They both use hop count as a metric.

They both have the same metric value for infinite distance.

They both use split horizon to prevent routing loops.

15. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited network contains a mixture of Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The command debug ip rip was entered on the JAX router. All routers are running the same version of RIP. Router CHI and Router ORL are not able to reach the 192.168.1.16/28 network. What is a possible solution to this problem?

Configure RIPv2 on routers.

16. What field was added to the RIP message header by RFC 1723 to add support for VLSM and CIDR?

Subnet mask

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which command on which router will allow Router1 to learn about the 192.168.0.0/20 network?

Router2(config-router)# version 2

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

Router1 will install a route to 192.168.0.0/20

Router2 will not install a route to 192.168.16.0/20

19. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIP version 2. JAX is configured to just advertise the 10.0.0.0/24 network. CHI is configured to advertise the 172.16.0.0/16 network. A network administrator enters the commands shown in the exhibit. What changes will occur in this network?

The CHI router will install a route to the 192.168.0.0/16 network in its routing table.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will allow Router2 to learn about the 192.168.16.0/28 network?

Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0

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CCNA 2 V.4 Exploration - Chapter 6

Chapter 6 - Module Answers

1. What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)

reduced routing table size

reduced routing update traffic

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which address is a broadcast address for one of the subnets that are shown in the exhibit?

192.168.4.15/29

3. In the network shown in the graphic, three bits were borrowed from the host portion of a Class C address. How many valid host addresses will be unused on the three point-to-point links combined if VLSM is not used?

84

4. Which of the following are contained in the routing updates of classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)

32-bit address

Subnet mask

5. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-point connection between the two routers. Which subnetwork mask would provide enough addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?

255.255.255.252

6. What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?

utilize multiple subnet masks in the same IP address space

7. Which three interior routing protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.)

OSPF

RIP v2

EIGRP

8. Which of the following problems does VLSM help to alleviate?

the shortage of IP addresses

9. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician enters the static route in R1 needed to reach network 10.1.1.0/24. A ping from the S0/0/0 interface on R1 to host B fails. The technician begins testing the network and has the following results:

1. pings from R1 to the S0/0/0 interface on R2....successful

2. pings from R1 to the Fa0/0 interface on R2....successful

3. pings from host B to hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 network....successful

4. pings from host B to the Fa0/0 interface on R2....successful

5. pings from R2 to host B....successful.

What is the likely cause of the failure of the ping from R1 to host B?

The default gateway on host B is not correctly set.

10. A network administrator is tasked with dividing up a class C network among the QA, Sales, and Administration departments. The QA department is made up of 10 people, the Sales is made up of 28 people, and the Administration has 6. Which two subnets masks adequately address the QA and Sales departments? (Choose two.)

255.255.255.224 for Sales

255.255.255.240 for QA

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is summarizing the two groups of routes on router R1 shown in the exhibit. Which summarization will work for all the subnets?

192.168.0.0/21

12. A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to provide for the number of host addresses required on Router A, while wasting the fewest addresses?

/27

13. Refer to the exhibit. In the network that is shown, the router interfaces are assigned the first address in each subnet. Which IP address would be usable for a host on one of the LANs in this network?

192.168.2.130/25

14. Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will be applied if Router A sends a RIPv1 update for the network 172.16.1.0 to Router B?

24

15. Refer to the exhibit. The number of required host addresses for each subnet in a network is listed in the exhibit. This number includes the host address requirements for all router ports and hosts on that subnet. After all device and router port address assignments are determined, what will be the total number of unused host addresses available?

29

16. An additional subnet is required for a new Ethernet link between Router1 and Router2 as shown in the diagram. Which of the following subnet addresses can be configured in this network to provide a maximum of 14 useable addresses for this link while wasting the fewest addresses?

192.1.1.224/28

17. What is a supernet?

a summarization of classful addresses

18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to create two subnetworks from 10.0.0.0/8 for a router running RIPv2. The Admin subnet requires 120 hosts and the Sales subnet requires 58 hosts. The network administrator assigned 10.0.1.128/25 to the Admin subnet. The Sales subnet is given 10.0.1.192/26. What will be the result of this addressing scheme?

The subnets overlap and will be rejected by the router.

19. A router has a summary route to network 192.168.32.0/20 installed in its routing table. What range of networks are summarized by this route?

192.168.32.0 – 192.168.47.0/24

20. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to minimize the number of entries in Router1’s routing table. What should the administrator implement on the network?

CIDR

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CCNA 2 V.4 Exploration - Chapter 5

Chapter 5 - Module Answer

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network that is shown is running RIPv1. The 192.168.10.0/24 network was recently added and will only contain end users. What command or set of commands should be entered on Router1 to prevent RIPv1 updates from being sent to the end user devices on the new network while still allowing this new network to be advertised to other routers?

--> Router1(config-router)# no network 192.168.10.0



2. The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command.
R 192.168.3.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0
What is the value of the routing metric?

--> 3



3. Which of the following is considered a limitation of RIP v1?

--> RIP v1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates.



4. Refer to the exhibit. The Ethernet interface on Router2 goes down and the administrator notices that the route is still in the Router1 routing table. How much longer will Router1 keep the down network in its routing table before marking it as possibly down?

--> 155 seconds



5. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running RIPv1. What command was entered into Router1 to configure the gateway of last resort?

--> ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1



6. What are three characteristics of the RIPv1 routing protocol? (Choose three.)

--> uses hop count as a metric

--> considers a metric of 16 as infinity

--> calculates metrics using the Bellman Ford algorithm



7. Which of the following would be the correct command sequence to enable RIP on Router B for all connected networks?


RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 220.17.29.0



8. What is the default update period in seconds for the RIP routing protocol?

--> 30




9. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output of router B?

--> The default-information originate command has been entered on A.



10. Refer to the exhibit. A network consists of multiple routers. What can be verified when the show ip protocols command is issued on one of the routers in the network?

--> routing protocol configuration in use for IP on this router



11. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured with valid interface addresses in the indicated networks and are running RIPv1. The network is converged. Which routes are present in the routing tables?

--> All routers have all /30 routes. Routers A and E also have some of the /24 routes in their routing table.



12. Which two statements are true regarding the characteristics of RIPv1? (Choose two).

--> It is a distance vector routing protocol.

--> The data portion of a RIP message is encapsulated into a UDP segment.



13. Which command or set of commands will stop the RIP routing process?

--> RouterB(config)# no router rip



14. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the exhibit are running RIP v1. The network administrator issues the show ip route command on router A. What routes would appear in the routing table output if the network is converged? (Choose two).

--> R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1]

--> R 10.10.1.0/24 [120/2]



15. Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?

--> debug ip rip



16. Refer to the output from the show ip route command. What can be concluded from the output of this router command?

--> There are two equal cost paths to network 1.0.0.0.



17. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running the RIPv1 protocol. The network administrator configures the command network 10.1.0.0 on Router1. What network will Router1 advertise to Router2?

--> 10.0.0.0/8



18. Refer to the exhibit. Pings between the serial interfaces of the routers are successful. Hosts on each LAN can ping the Fa0/0 interface of the router to which they are directly connected through the switch. However, pings between hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 networks are unsuccessful. What is a likely cause of this problem?

--> RIP is configured incorrectly on R1.



19. What will happen if an interface IP address is entered for the address portion of the network command in a RIPv1 configuration instead of a network address?

--> All interfaces in the same classful network as the configured address will be included in the RIPv1 routing process.



20. Refer to the exhibit. All routers that are shown are running the RIP routing protocol. All unknown IP traffic must be forwarded to the ISP. What router or set of routers are recommended to have both a default route and the default-information originate command issued to implement this forwarding policy?

--> only the gateway router

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CCNA 2 V.4 Exploration - Chapter 4

Chapter 4 - Module Answer

1. Which event will cause a triggered update?

--> a route is installed in the routing table

2. Three routers running a distance-vector routing protocol lost all power, including the battery backups. When the routers reload, what will happen?

--> They will send updates that include only directly connected routes to their directly connected neighbors.

3. What does the RIP holddown timer do?

--> instructs routers to ignore updates, for a specified time or event, about possible inaccessible routes

4. Which two statements are true regarding the function of the RIPv1 routing updates? (Choose two).

--> updates are broadcast at regular intervals

--> broadcasts are sent to 255.255.255.255

5. Which of the following statements are correct about RIP?

--> will send out an update if there is a failure of a link

6. Which two statements describe EIGRP? (Choose two.)

--> EIGRP sends triggered updates whenever there is a change in topology that influences the routing information.

--> EIGRP sends a partial routing table update, which includes just routes that have been changed.

7. Which statement is true regarding cisco’s RIP_JITTER variable?

--> It prevents the synchronization of routing updates by subtracting a random length of time ranging from 0% to 15% of the specified interval time from the next routing update interval.

8. What actions will occur after RouterA loses connectivity to network 114.125.16.0? (Choose two.)

--> RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterA.

--> Router C will learn of the loss of connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 from RouterB.

9. Which of the following methods does split horizon use to reduce incorrect routing information?

--> Information learned from one source is not distributed back to that source.

10. The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Router2 detects that the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the network for this link with a hop count metric of 16. Which routing loop prevention mechanism is in effect?

--> route poisoning

11. What is the purpose of the TTL field in the IP header?

--> limits the time or hops that a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded

12. Which of the following can exist in a distance vector network that has not converged? (Choose three.)

--> routing loops

--> inconsistent traffic forwarding

--> inconsistent routing table entries

13. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in this network are running RIP. Router A has not received an update from Router B in over three minutes. How will Router A respond?

--> The Invalid timer will mark the route as unusable if an update has not been received in 180 seconds.

14. A network administrator is evaluating RIP versus EIGRP for a new network. The network will be sensitive to congestion and must respond quickly to topology changes. What are two good reasons to choose EIGRP instead of RIP in this case? (Choose two.)

--> EIGRP only updates affected neighbors.

--> EIGRP updates are partial.

15. Refer to the exhibit. What path will packets from the 192.168.1.0/24 network travel to reach the 10.0.0.0/8 network if RIP is the active routing protocol?

--> The path will be router A -> router D -> router E.

16. Which three routing protocols are distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three).

--> RIPv1

--> EIGRP

--> RIPv2

17. What is a routing loop?

--> a condition where a packet is constantly transmitted within a series of routers without ever reaching its intended destination

18. Which two conditions are most likely to cause a routing loop? (Choose two.)

--> inconsistent routing tables

--> incorrectly configured static routes

19. What metric does the RIP routing protocol consider to be infinity?

--> 16

20. What does a router running RIP do first with a new route that is received from an advertisement?

--> adjusts the metric for the new route to show the added distance for the route

21. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are using RIP, how many rounds of updates will occur before all routers know all networks?

--> 3

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CCNA 2 V.4 Exploration - Chapter 3

Chapter 3 - Module Answer

1. Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)

--> Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.

--> Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best path to R2?

--> R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP.

3. Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)

--> sends subnet mask information in routing updates

--> allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology

4. Which command would the network administrator issue to determine if load balancing is in effect on a router?

--> show ip route

5. Which statement is true regarding routing protocols?

--> EIGRP uses DUAL to calculate the shortest path and can be configured to do unequal cost load balancing.

6. Which two conditions would create a setting where the use of a distance-vector routing protocol would be efficient? (Choose two.)

--> the network is using a hub and spoke topology

--> the network is using a flat design

7. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?

---> It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.

8. Which of the following best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?

--> hey send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.

9. Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?

--> shortest-path first calculations

10. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?

--> Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.

11. Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged

--> The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.

12. Which two statements are true regarding metrics? (Choose two.)

--> EIGRP uses bandwidth as a metric.

--> OSPF uses cost based on bandwidth as a metric.

13. Which two statements are true regarding the advantages of the use of static routes? (Choose two).

--> increased security

--> the administrator maintains control over routing

14. The following line of code is displayed in a routing table:
R 209.165.201.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.252.2, 00:00:16, S0/0/0
What can be concluded from this output?

--> The value, 120, is used to determine the best path when a router has more than one routing protocol configured for the same destination network.

15. What will be the result of the following commands?
ORL(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
ORL(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0
ORL(config-if)# no shutdown

--> A routing table entry is made to the 172.16.3.0 network with a code of "C".

16. An engineer creates a static route by entering the Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.2 command. What can be concluded about this route?

--> The administrative distance of this route is 1.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running EIGRP. All interfaces are operational and packets can be forwarded between all networks. What information will be found in the routing table for Router1?

--> The administrative distance of the route to network 172.16.0.0 will be 90.

18. The following line of code is present in the routing table:
O 10.16.1.0/27 [110/129] via 192.168.1.5, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/1
What does the number 129 indicate in this output?

--> The cost for this link has a value of 129.

19. A growing medium-sized manufacturing company recently began to have routing instability issues. The company uses static routes and has a mixture of over 30 Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The network administrator has decided to convert the network to dynamic routing. What characteristics of protocols should be considered in this selection process?

--> OSPF can be used between the routers.

20. Refer to the exhibit. If RIP is the routing protocol, what is the value of the metric from router A to network 192.168.5.0/24?

--> 3

21. A router learns two paths with equal metrics to a destination network via the RIP routing protocol. How will the router handle packets to the destination network?

--> The router will install both routes in the routing table and load balance between the two.

22 When multiple routing protocols have a route to the same destination network, what determines which route is installed in the routing table?

best metric 

lowest hop count 

greatest available bandwidth 

-- > lowest administrative distance 

lowest cost

The Result is satisfactory. If you find any wrong answer please don't hesitate to comment or email me. Thanks for visiting the blog.

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CCNA 2 V.4 Exploration - Chapter 2

Chapter 2 - Module Answer

1. Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)

--> platform
--> holdtime
--> local interface

2. Why is it advisable to enter a next-hop IP address when creating a static route whose exit interface is an Ethernet network?

--> In a multi-access network, the router cannot determine the next-hop MAC address for the Ethernet frame without a next-hop address.


3. The output of the Router# show interfaces serial 0/1 command displays the following:
Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down.
What is the most likely cause for the line protocol being down?

--> No clock rate has been set.

4. A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and metric in the routing table?

--> administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0

5. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)

--> A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
--> A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

6. Refer to the exhibit. A company network engineer is assigned to establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks so that hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet can contact hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet. The engineer has been told to use only static routing for these company routers. Which set of commands will establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks?

--> R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which static route should be configured on Router1 so that host A will be able to reach host B on the 172.16.0.0 network?

--> ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0

8. What address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24, 172.16.3.0/24, and 172.16.4.0/24?

--> 172.16.0.0/21

9. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the /8 in the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?

--> It indicates the number of consecutive bits, from the left, in the destination IP address of a packet that must match 10.0.0.0 to use that route.

10. What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two).

--> a modem
--> a CSU/DSU device

11. A network administrator enters the following command into Router1: ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/1/0. Router1 then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet?

--> encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the S0/1/0 interface

12. Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show ip interface brief?

--> Interface IP address

13. Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?

--> By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.


14. Which two statements describe functions or characteristics of CDP? (Choose two.)

--> It starts up automatically and allows the device to detect directly connected neighbor devices that use CDP.
--> It allows systems to learn about each other even if different network layer protocols are configured.

15. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)

--> ping
--> traceroute
--> show ip route


16. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?

--> The route is removed from the table.

17. The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?

--> 192.1.1.0/25

18. Refer to the exhibit. How will packets destined to the 172.16.0.0 network be forwarded?

--> Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/0.

19. A router has one static route to each destination network. Which two scenarios would require an administrator to alter the static routes that are configured on that router? (Choose two.)

--> The destination network no longer exists.
--> A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not accessible.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output in the exhibit, how would a clock rate be determined for this link?

--> The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands will configure static routes that will allow the WinterPark and the Altamonte routers to deliver packets from each LAN and direct all other traffic to the Internet?

--> WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1
Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1

22. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are required to provide connectivity between the 192.168.1.0 and 10.0.0.0 networks without requiring recursive lookup? (Choose two.)

--> A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/1/0
--> B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/0/0

The Result is satisfactory. If you find any wrong answer please don't hesitate to comment or email me. Thanks for visiting the blog.

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CCNA 2. V.4 Exploration - Chapter 1

Chapter 1 - Module Answers

---

1. If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will occur?

--> The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.

2. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the router with the interface IP addresses shown for the directly connected networks. Pings from the router to hosts on the connected networks or pings between router interfaces are not working. What is the most likely problem?

--> The interfaces must be enabled with the no shutdown command.

3. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

--> The FastEthernet0/0 and Serial0/0/0 interfaces of this router were configured with an IP address and the no shutdown command.

--> An IP packet received by this router with a destination address of 198.18.9.1 will be forwarded out of the Serial0/0/0 interface.

4. Refer to the exhibit. The frame shown in the exhibit was received by the router. The router interfaces are operational. How will the router process this frame? (Choose two.)

--> The router will change the frame type to one supported by the WAN link before forwarding the frame.

--> The frame was received on the Fa0/0 interface of the router and will be switched to the S0/0/0 interface.

5. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)

--> VTY interface

--> console interface

--> privileged EXEC mode

6. Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.)

--> ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.

--> Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.

7. Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?

--> Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.

8. Which are functions of a router? (Choose three.)

--> packet switching

--> segmentation of broadcast domains

--> selection of best path based on logical addressing

9. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have a route in its routing table to each network that is shown in the exhibit. Default routes have not been issued on these routers. What can be concluded about how packets are forwarded in this network? (Choose two.)

--> If RouterA receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.3.146, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.

--> If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.27.15, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.

10. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)

--> Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0

--> Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown

--> Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000

11. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the running-configuration of a router?

--> The commands that are displayed determine the current operation of the router.

12. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)

--> destination IP address: 192.168.10.134

--> destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234

13. What is the outcome of entering these commands?
R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)# password check123
R1(config-line)# login

--> sets the password to be used for connecting to this router via Telnet

14. Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?

--> load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration

15. What three processes does a router execute when it receives a packet from one network that is destined for another network? (Choose three.)

--> decapsulates the Layer 3 packet by stripping off the Layer 2 frame header

--> uses the destination IP Address in the IP header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table

--> encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into the new Layer 2 frame and forwards it out the exit interface

16. The network administrator needs to connect two routers directly via their FastEthernet ports. What cable should the network administrator use?

--> cross-over

17. Which two statements describe characteristics of load balancing? (Choose two.)

--> Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.

--> Unequal cost load balancing is supported by EIGRP.

18. What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from the output of the show version command? (Choose three.)

--> the last restart method

--> the configuration register settings

--> the location from where the IOS loaded

19. Which interfaces in the exhibit could be used for a leased line WAN connection? (Choose two.)

--> 1

--> 4

20. From what location can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot process? (Choose two.)

--> TFTP server

--> Flash memory

21. A network administrator has just entered new configurations into Router1. Which command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM?

--> Router1# copy running-config startup-config

22. What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?

--> NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE

23. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?

--> the Layer 2 source and destination address

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CCNA 2 { Exploration } - Module Answers

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CCNA 1 - Exam 640 - 802

Final Exam Answer [CCNA 1 - EXPLORATION]

1. A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC?

--> Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.


2. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?

--> A, B, D, G

3. Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame?

--> only computer D


4. Which password is automatically encrypted when it is created?

--> enable secret

5. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

--> TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.

--> TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.

--> TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.


6. Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.)

--> 100 Base-FX

--> 1000 Base LX


7. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational?

--> 192.168.254.1


8. Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending email between clients.
Select the list below that correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram.

--> 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

9. Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network?

--> address translation

10. Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B? What action can be preformed to correct the network issue?

--> issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1


11. Which three IPv4 addresses represent a broadcast for a subnet? (Choose three.)

--> 172.16.4.63 /26

--> 172.16.4.191 /26

--> 172.16.4.95 /27


12. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)

--> A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.

--> All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.

--> After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.

13. In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored?

--> NVRAM

14. A routing issue has occurred in you internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error?

--> router


15. Which OSI layer protocol does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission?

--> transport


16. Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two.)

--> The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access.
The entries set the console and Telnet password to "c13c0".
Telnet access will be denied because the Telnet configuration is incomplete.
--> Access will be permitted for Telnet using "c13c0" as the password.

17. Which prompt represents the appropriate mode used for the copy running-config startup-config command ?

--> Switch-6J#


18. Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255?

--> 172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0

19. When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command?

--> when the interface is functioning as a DCE device

20. When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what are usually used to acknowledge the data receipt and request the retransmission of missing data?

--> upper-layer connection-oriented protocols


21. A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most
secure?

--> enable secret


22. Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on RouterA?

--> a terminal emulation program


23. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1. Which two statements are true about the application layer protocol that is used to make this connection? (Choose two.)

-->The connection type is called a VTY session.

--> The application name is the same for the service, protocol, and client.


24. The Layer 4 header contains which type of information to aid in the delivery of data?

--> service port number


25. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the exhibited topology? (Choose two.)

--> A single broadcast domain is present

--> Five collision domains exist.


26. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?

--> IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17


27. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and cable 2 have the ends wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable which has been installed by the network technician between the network components on that segment. From the data
given, which segments have the correct cable installed? (Choose three.)


--> segment1

--> segment3

--> segment4


28. What is true regarding network layer addressing? (Choose three.)

--> uses a flat structure

--> uniquely identifies each host

--> contains a network portion


29. Refer to the exhibit. A router, whose table is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.4. How will router treat the packet?


--> The packet will be forwarded to the destination host.



30. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choose two.)


--> The destination port indicates a Telnet session.

--> The return segment will contain a source port of 23.



31. Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server?


--> 198.133.219.25:80
http://www.cisco.com


32. During the encapsulation process, which identifiers are added at the transport layer?


--> two applications communicating the data



33. Refer to the exhibit. A student has wired each end of a CAT 5e cable as shown. What is the result? (Choose two.)


--> The cable is suitable for use as a Fast Ethernet crossover.

--> The cable is suitable for use between two 100 Mbps Auto-MDIX capable switches.


34. Refer to the exhibit. Assume all devices are using default configurations. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?


--> 3



35. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network?


--> The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.



36. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?

--> Connection 1 - straight-through cable , Connection 2 - crossover cable , Connection 3 - straight-through cable



37. Refer to the exhibit. What does the IP address 192.168.33.2 represent?

--> The host's primary domain name server.



38. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the information that is given? (Choose two.)


--> The destination port indicates that an HTTP session has been initiated.

--> The data listed is associated with the transport layer.


39. Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.)

--> 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255

--> 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255

--> 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255



40. Which two functions of the OSI model occur at layer two? (Choose two.)


--> physical addressing

--> media access control



41. Which range of port numbers are reserved for services that are commonly used by applications that run on servers?

--> 0 to 1023


42. As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address 172.30.0.0?


--> 255.255.254.0



43. Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command is initiated from PC1 to the destination PC4. Which device will send a response to the initial packet from PC1?


--> Athens


44. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. What addresses will host A use to for the destination IP and MAC addresses in this communication?


--> Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.75


45. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology best describes the exhibited network?


--> star


46. Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem?


--> subnet mask incorrectly entered



47. Refer to the exhibit. With the router running NAT, what IP addresses can be applied to the computer to allow access to the Internet? (Choose three.)


--> 192.168.18.49

--> 192.168.18.52

-->192.168.18.59



48. Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)



--> The address that is assigned to the computer represents private addressing.

--> The computer is unable to communicate outside of the local network.

--> The prefix of the computer address is /27.



49. Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured?

--> leaving Dallas


50. WWhich OSI layer uses a connection-oriented protocol to ensure reliable delivery of data?





--> transport layer

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CCNA Exploration - Chapter 11

Chapter 11 - Correct Answers

1
Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?

--> UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1

2
In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?

--> as the commands are entered

3
Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?

--> enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
line console 0
password 7 020507550A

4
When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?

--> Console

5
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?

--> RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login

6
Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?

--> show interfaces

7
Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)

--> privileged executive mode

--> enable mode

8
What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?

--> Router(config)# hostname Fontana

9
The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)

--> Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0

--> Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown

--> Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000

10
Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?

--> IP assigned to the serial port on Router B

11
Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch?

--> NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address

12
Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)

--> show startup-config

--> show running-config

13
Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)

--> hot keys

--> context-sensitive

--> command syntax check

14
Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)

--> The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.

--> The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.

15
Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?

--> Ctrl-Shift-6

16
The connection between routers B and C has been successfully tested. However, after rebooting router C, the administrator noticed the response time between networks 10.10.3.0 and 10.10.4.0 is slower. Ping between the two routers is successful. A trace route indicates three hops from router B to router C. What else can be done to troubleshoot the problem?

--> Issue a show interfaces command on router C.

17
In a Cisco device, where is the IOS file stored prior to system startup?

--> Flash


18
On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?

--> console


19
A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?

--> SSH

CCNA Exploration - Chapter 10

Chapter 10 - Correct Answers

---

Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)


--> connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports

--> connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds

2
Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)

--> They segment broadcast domains.
--> They interconnect different network technologies.
--> Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.


3
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?

router
--> hub
switch
wireless access point

4
A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?

STP
* UTP
coaxial
single-mode fiber
multimode fiber

5
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)

Hosts B and C are in the same subnet.
* Five broadcast domains are present.
* Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
Four broadcast domains are present.
*Five networks are shown.
Host B is using a rollover cable to connect to the router.

6
Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco's V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)

RJ 11
* DB 60
* Winchester 15 pin
DB 9
* smart serial
RJ 45

7
How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?

30
256
* 2046
2048
4094
4096

8
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?

--> host B would be successful, host A would fail


9
Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?

192.168.1.1
192.168.2.1
192.168.2.2
192.168.3.1
* 192.168.3.54

10
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)

Segment 1 uses backbone cabling.
* Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
Segment 3 uses patch cabling.
Segment 3 uses vertical cabling.
* Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
* Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.

11
A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?

255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192
* 255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248

12
Refer to the exhibit. A student is setting up a home network primarily used for extensive file transfers, streaming video, and gaming. Which network device is best suited to these types of activities in the topology shown?

wireless access point
router
hub
* switch

13
Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?

2
* 3
4
5

14
What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?

* loss of signal strength as distance increases
time for a signal to reach its destination
leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
strengthening of a signal by a networking device

15
To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?

--> rollover cable


16
What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)

* greater distances per cable run
lower installation cost
*limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
durable connections
*greater bandwidth potential
easily terminated

17
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?

255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
--> 255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248

18
Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?

255.255.0.0
--> 255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0

19
What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?

cross-over
straight-through
* roll-over
patch cable

20
Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?

AUX interface
Ethernet interface
serial interface
* console interface
----------------------------------------------------------------------------

21

What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose three.)

--> direct configuration of the device

--> the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs

--> the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port

or

21  What are two common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose two.)

-->the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port

--> the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs

--------------------------------------------------------------

22

Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?

hub
switch
bridge
* router
repeater

23
Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?

--> 1

CCNA Exploration - Chapter 9

chapter 9 - correct answers

---

1 In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?

--> Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.


2 Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

--> Physical layer

-->Data-link layer


3 Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)

--> the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame

--> the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame


4 What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)

--> addressing

--> error detection

--> frame delimiting


5 When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?

--> The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.


6 What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)

--> identifies the network layer protocol

--> makes the connection with the upper layers

--> insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting


7 What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?

--> Logical Link Control sublayer


8 Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?

--> A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.


9 Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the frame field type with the contents that frame field includes?

--> data field - network layer packet


10 Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)

--> Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.

--> A result of 172.16.224.0 will be obtained.


11 Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?

--> Collisions can decrease network performance.


12 Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?

--> network access


13 What is the primary purpose of ARP?

--> resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses


14 Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?

--> No collisions will occur on this link.


15 Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)

--> A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.

--> A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.


16 Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)

--> copied into RAM during system startup

--> contains a 3 byte OUI

--> 6 bytes long


17 Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)

--> minimizing of collisions

--> increase in the throughput of communications


18 What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)

--> copper UTP

--> optical fiber


19 Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

--> BA


20 After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?

--> any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires

CCNA 4 Exploration - Chapter 8

Chapter 8 - Correct Answers

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CHAPTER 8

1
Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?

--> backbone cable

2
In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?

BNC
RJ-11
**RJ-45
Type F

3
When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
when connecting a router through the console port
when connecting one switch to another switch
**when connecting a host to a switch
when connecting a router to another router

4
With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?
**the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously

5
Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?
Presentation
Transport
Data Link
**Physical

6
An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?
light injector
**OTDR
TDR
multimeter

7
XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.)
**coax
Cat4 UTP
Cat5 UTP
**Cat6 UTP
STP

8
What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?
Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
**Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.

9
What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)

--> goodput

--> throughput

--> bandwidth

10


Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
coax cable
rollover cable
**crossover cable
straight-through cable

11
In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?
coax
**fiber
Cat5e UTP
Cat6 UTP
STP

12
Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?
kolmas


13
Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?
electrical
optical
**wireless
acoustic

14
Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
**It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
**It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

15
Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?

--> generally uses lasers as the light source



16
What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?
**more host mobility
lower security risks
reduced susceptibility to interference
less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area

17
What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?
the metal braiding in the shielding
the reflective cladding around core
**the twisting of the wires in the cable
the insulating material in the outer jacket

18
What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?
**create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
provide physical addressing to the devices
determine the path packets take through the network
control data access to the media

CCNA 4 Exploration - Chapter 7

Chapter 7 - Correct Answers

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1
Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)

--> non-deterministic

--> less overhead

--> collisions exist


2
What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?

--> facilitate the entry and exit of data on media

3
Refer to the exhibit. How many unique CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?

-->8


4
What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?

--> Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

5


Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for www.server?

--> 00-0c-85-cf-65-c0


6
What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)

--> They are 48 binary bits in length.

--> They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.

--> They are considered physical addresses.

7


Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)

--> source MAC - Fa0/1 on RouterB

--> source IP - PC


8
What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)

--> media sharing

--> logical topology


9
What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?

--> is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

10
What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

--> Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card

--> Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme


11
Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)

--> Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.

--> Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.


12
Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?

--> MAC


13
What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)

--> Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD

--> defined as placement of data frames on the media

--> Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media


14
What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?

--> The media access control protocol can be very simple.


15
What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)


--> The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.

--> The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.



16
What is a function of the data link layer?

--> provides for the exchange data over a common local media

17
Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)

--> the geographic scope of the network

--> the physical layer implementation

--> the number of hosts to be interconnected


18
What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?

--> support frame error detection


19
A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?

--> physical topology


20
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?

--> Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.

Additional Questions
21.
What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?

--> Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.


22.
Refer to the exhibit. How many CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?

--> 8

CCNA 4 Exploration - Chapter 6

Chapter 6 - Correct Answers

---

1 How many bits make up an IPv4 address?

--> 32

2 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?

--> 255.255.255.192


3 Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server's properties to allow connectivity to the network?

--> IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33


4 Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.

--> /27


5 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?


--> NAT is required for the host A network.

6 What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?

--> 255.255.255.0

7 Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?

--> This is a network address.


8 What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)